Sunday, December 28, 2008
Internal organisation of Plants
1.Study the following and identify the correct match
A. Eupatorium I) Jute A B C D
B. Leucas II) Hemp 1) V IV II III
C. Cannabis III) Flax 2) V IV II I
D. Corchorus IV) Lacunar collenchyma 3) IV III I II
V) Lamellar collenchyma 4) V III II I
2. Longest fibres are seen in
1) Agave 2) Musa 3) Yucca 4) Boehmeria
3. [A] : Trochodendron and Drimys are angiosperms.
[R] : They have vessels.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
4. Nepenthes has
i) Digestive glands ii) Nectaries iii) Hydathodes
1) i and iii 2) ii and iii 3) i and ii 4) i, ii and iii
5. Fragrance of plant parts is due to the presence of
1) Lysiginous cavities 2) Hydathodes 3) Osmophores 4) Laticifers
6. This secretory tissue has multinucleate cells
1) Hydathodes 2) Laticiferous tissue 3) Netaries 4) Secretory spaces
7. Dead cells are involved in secretion in
1) Latex cells 2) Latex vessels 3) Hydathodes 4) Nectaries
8. Porate cross walls are seen in
i) Sieve cells ii) Sieve tubes iii) Trachieds iv) Vessels
1) i, ii, iii 2) ii and iv 3) iii and iv 4) i and ii
9. Epithelial cells are seen in the stems of
1) Euphorbia 2) Hevea 3) Ficus 4) Helianthus
10. Lysigenous cavities are formed by dead cells in
1) Eucalyptus 2) Citrus 3) Helianthus 4) Zea
11. [A] : Grafting can not be successful in monocots.
[R] : They have conjoint closed vascular bundles in their stems.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
12. Bundle sheath extensions of dicot leaf are differentiated into
1) Parenchyma 2) Collechyma 3) Aerenchyma 4) Sclerenchyma
13. Cells of Quercus suber were first discovered by
1) Nageli 2) Robert Hooke 3) Strasburger 4) Mujumdar
14. [A] : All plants that show secondary growth have growth rings.
[R] : All plants with growth rings show secondary growth.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
15. Dicot roots most commonly show the following condition
1) Diarch 2) Triarch 3) Tetrarch 4) Pentarch
16. Most distinctive feature of collechyma is
1) Uneven cell walls 2) Mechanical function 3) Presence of chloroplasts 4) Hypodermal position
17. Type of Sclereids which resemble cells of fundamental tissue are
1) Osteo 2) Astero 3) Brachy 4) Macro
18. Match the following A B C D
A. Tricho sclereids I) Mouriria 1) III I II IV
B. Astrosclereids II) Pisum sativum 2) III IV II I
C. Macro sclerids III) Olea 3) IV III II I
D. Osteosclereids IV) Nymphaea 4) III IV I II
19. Simple laticifers are found in
i) Euphorbia ii) Ficus iii) Carica iv) Cannabis
1) i, ii and iii 2) iii only 3) i, ii and iv 4) i and ii
20. Formation of slime plugs is the indication of
1) Injured phloem 2) Plants facing water stress 3) Injured xylem 4) Disease
21. Identify the two correct combinations
i) Aerial roots of Monstera
Filiform sclereids
Lacunar collenchyma
ii) Petioles of Nymphaea
Astrosclereids
Aerenchyma
iii) Cucurbita stems
Discontinuous ring of collenchyma
Simple sieve plates
iv) Selaginella
Pteridophyte
Vessels absent
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) i, ii, iv
22. Monocot stem differs from dicot stem in lacking
i) Trichomes ii) Vascular bundles iii) Medulla iv) Hypodermis
1) i alone correct 2) i, iii, iv are correct 3) i and iii are correct 4) ii alone correct
23. Leaves of grasses are associated with the following characters
i) Casparian strips in the cells of border Parenchyma
ii) Dissimilar adaxial epidermal cells
iii) Dissimilar abaxial epidermal cells
iv) Open vascular bundles
1) i and ii 2) i and iii 3) ii and iii 4) iii and iv
24. Chemically, casparian thickenings have
i) Lignin ii) Suberin iii) Cutin
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i, ii and iii
25. Match the following
Plant Stelar condition of root
A. Nicotiana I) Polyarch A B C D
B. Gossypium II) Triarch 1) IV III V I
C. Ricinus III) Diarch 2) III IV V I
D. Helianthus IV) Tetrarch 3) III IV V II
V) Pentarch 4) IV III II V
26. Study the following
Part of plant axis
Type of tissue
Function
i) Root cortex
Parenchyma
Radial conduction
ii) Medullary rays
Parenchyma
Lateral conduction
iii) Stem pericycle
Sclerenchyma
Stores food material
iv) Root pericycle
Parenchyma
Gives rise adventitious roots
Identify the two correct items
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) ii and iv
27. Bark has
1) All derivatives of cork cambium and vascular cambium
2) All derivatives of cork cambium and some derivatives of vascular cambium
3) Some derivatives of cork cambium and all derivatives of vascular cambium
4) Only the derivatives of cork cambium
28. Arrange presence of the following in centrifugal sequence in the secondary plant axis
i) Youngest portion of secondary phloem ii) Oldest layer secondary xylem
iii) Oldest layer of secondary phloem iv) Youngest layer of secondary xylem
1) iii, i, iv, ii 2) ii, i, iv, iii 3) ii, iii, iv, i 4) ii, iv, i, iii
29. A pathogen promotes the formation of the following in a dicot
1) Annual rings 2) Growth marks 3) Pseudoannual rings 4) Cork
30. Match the following
A. Open vascular bundles I) Dicot leaf A B C D
B. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis II) Monocot root 1) III V IV I
C. Tetrarch stele III) Dicot stem 2) III V IV II
D. Polyarch stele IV) Dicot root 3) IV III I II
V) Monocot stem 4) III IV I II
31. Study the following
Tissue
Character I
Character II
i) Meristem
Larger nucleus
Proplastids are present
ii) Parenchyma
Occupies major part of plant body
Cell wall has high amount of lignin
iii) Collenchyma
Cell wall has uneven thickness
High amount of pectin and cellulose are present in cell wall
iv) Sclerenchyma
Has smaller nucleus
Cell wall is lignified
Identify the two correct items
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) ii and iv
32. Albuminous cells are associated with
1) Sieve tube members 2) Vessel members 3) Tracheids 4) Sieve cells
33. Poorly developed vessels are seen in
i) Hydrophytes ii) Non-succulent xerophytes iii) Succulent xerophytes
1) i and ii 2) only i 3) only ii 4) i and iii
34. Apical meristem has no contact with
i) Intercalary meristem ii) Fascicular cambium iii) Cork cambium
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) only i
35. Arrange the tracheary elements with the following pattern of secondary wall thickenings present from periphery towards the centre in the xylem of Gossypium primary stem
i)Reticulate thickenings ii) Annular thickenings iii) Pitted thickeneings iv) Spiral thickenings
1) iv, iii, ii, i 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) iii, i, iv, ii 4) ii, iv, i, iii
36. Identify the pair that shows more similarities in their origin
1) Fascicular Cambium, Inter fascicular cambium 2) Cork Cambium, Fascicular Cambium
3) Intercalary Meristem, Inter Fascicular Cambium 4) Inter Fascicular Cambium, Cork Cambium
37. Non-pericycle sclerenchyma is present over the phloem of
1) Maize root 2) Pisum stem 3) Cicer root 4) Sugarcane stem
38. Tyloses are pit membrane outgrowths of
1) Phloem parenchyma 2) Primary xylem parenchyma
3) Secondary xylem parenchyma 4) Medullary parenchyma
39. If a tree trunk has 50 rings of autumn wood 50 rings of Springwood, one ring of Heart wood and 1 ring of sap wood, the age of the plant is
1) 102 years 2) 50 years 3) 51 years 4) 100 years
40. Late wood can be distinguished from early wood in having
1) Broad vessels or tracheids 2) narrow vessels or tracheids
3) Red colour 4) Broader sieve tubes
Saturday, December 13, 2008
Cell Biology - Nucleic Acids and Cell Division
1. Nucleic acids are absent in
1) Ribosome 2) SER 3) Chloroplast 4) RER
2. In a given nucleotide the PO4 is attached to
1) 1st carbon of pentose sugar 2) 5th carbon of pentose sugar
3) 3rd carbon of pentose sugar 4) 5th carbon of nitrogen base
3.[A] : Nitrogen bases are heterocyclic compounds.
[R] : Their ring/s are formed by nitrogen and oxygen.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
4. The monocyclic nitrogen bases are
i) Adenine ii) Cytosine iii) Guanine iv) Uracil v) Thymine
1) i, ii, iii 2) i and iii 3) ii, iv, v 4) i, iv, v
5. Genetic nature of DNA was discovered by
1) Avery et.al by transduction experiments 2) Hershy and chase by transformation experiments
3) Avery et.al by transformation experiments 4) Hershy and chase by transduction experiments
6. Choose the correct statement with respect to B-DNA structure
i) A minor groove of DNA is present opposite to major groove
ii) A minor groove is flanked by 2 major grooves
iii) Both major and minor grooves are alternately arranged
iv) In DNA helix nitrogen bases form the back bone of DNA strands
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) i, ii, iii
7. Normally DNA is completely denatured at
1) 50°C 2) 60°C 3) 100°C 4) 70°C
8. Arrange the role of following enzyme in a sequence during DNA replication
i) DNA polymerase ii) Helicase iii) DNA ligase iv) Topoisomerase
1) i, ii, iii, iv 2) iii, ii, iv, i 3) ii, iii, iv, i 4) ii, iv, i, iii
9. The following nucleic acid has a direct catalytic role for the formation of peptide bonds between the amino acids during protein synthesis
1) DNA 2) mRNA 3) tRNA 4) rRNA
10.Hydrogen bond formation within the molecule is not seen in
1) DNA 2) mRNA 3) tRNA 4) rRNA
11. Match the following
A. 2c is equivalent to n I) G2 nucleus A B C D
B. 2c is equivalent to 2n II) Daughter nucleus of M II 1) IV III II I
C. 4c is equivalent to 2n III) Daughter nucleus of M I 2) III IV I V
D. 1c is equivalent to n IV) G1 nucleus 3) III IV I II
V) Anaphase II meiocyte 4) III V I II
12. Spindle fibres are chemically made of
1) Actins 2) Myosin 3) Desmin 4) Tubulin
13. Phragmoplast is formed by
1) Chromosomes 2) Golgivesicles 3) Cell membrane 4) Spindle fragments
14. This phenomenon of meiosis takes place in zipper like fashion
1) Terminalisation 2) Crossing over 3) Disjunction 4) Synapsis
15. X-shaped structures between homologous chromosomes are formed during the following stage of meiosis
1) Diplotene 2) Diakinesis 3) Zygotene 4) Pachytene
16. Non-sister chromatids of bivalents have contact with each other only at telomeric regions during
1) Pachytene 2) Diakinesis 3) Metaphase I 4) Diplotene
17. Study the following and identify the correct item group
i) Metaphase-I
Congression
Each chromosome is attached to one chromosomal fibre
ii) Anaphase – I
Disjunction
Division of chromosomes
iii) Diakinesis
Movement of chiasmata
Movement of bivalents
iv) Anaphase - II
Division of chromosomes
Reduction in chromosome number
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iv 4) i and iii
18. Identify the wrong statement
1) Number of chromosomes of meiosis-I daughter nucleus is equivalent to number of chromosomes of meiosis-II daughter nucleus
2) Amount of DNA in all daughter nucleic of meiosis-II is same
3) Meiosis-II daughter nucleus has same amount of DNA as that of Meiosis-I daughter nucleus
4) Number of spindles formed in meiosis-II is the double the number of spindles of Meiosis-I
19. Genetic engineering is mainly based on the principle of
1) Synapsis 2) Disjunction 3) Crossing over 4) Terminalization
20. Daughter cells/nuclei formed from these meiocytes can show mitotic divisions
i) Zygote ii) Spore mother cells iii) Gamete mother cells
1) i, ii, iii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and ii
21. This nitrogen base is almost always associated with the sugar having chemical formula as C5H10O5
1) Adenine 2) Uracil 3) Guanine 4) Cytosine
22. Match the following and identify the correct match
A. DNA I) Pseudohelices A B C D
B. m RNA II) Twisted ladder 1) III II IV I
C. t RNA III) Straight, unfolded, double stranded 2) II IV V I
D. r RNA IV) Straight, unfolded, single stranded 3) IV II III I
V) Clover leaf 4) V IV II I
24. In a double helical DNA, which among the base ratios are always equal to one
i) ii) iii)
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) only i 4) i and iii
25. Match the following
No. of C and N atoms Nitrogen base A B C D
A. 3 nitrogen atoms, 4 carbon atoms I) Thymine 1) II IV III I
B. 2 nitrogen atoms, 4 carbon atoms II) Guanine 2) IV V II I
C. 5 nitrogen atoms, 5 carbon atoms III) Adenine 3) V IV II I
D. 2 nitrogen atoms, 5 carbon atoms IV) Cytosine 4) II IV I III
V) Uracil
26. If a DNA molecule with 7002 hydrogen bonds has 180 thymine bases, what is the GC/AT ratio in that DNA
1) 12.3 2) 22.3 3) 16.3 4) 42.3
28. The sugar of DNA is
1) 2¢-deoxyribose 2) 3¢ - deoxyribose 3) 1¢ - deoxyribose 4) 4¢-deoxyribose
29. This feature is not shown by the DNA of f ´ 174 bacteriophage
1) Presence of deoxyribose 2) Presence of thymine 3) Presence of guanine 4) Chargaff’s rule
30. The smallest nucleic acid is
1) mRNA 2) tRNA 3) rRNA 4) Z-RNA
31. If the angle between 1st and last nucleotide of a DNA strand of B-DNA with 3 thymine basis is 288°, the total number of hydrogen bonds present in that DNA molecule is
1) 24 2) 17 3) 21 4) 20
32. Match the following A B C D
A. W. Flemming I) Cell lineage theory 1) I II IV III
B. Farmer and Moore II) Mitosis in animal cells 2) II III IV I
C. Weismann III) Meiosis 3) II III I IV
D. R. Virchow IV) Reduction of chromosome number 4) III IV II I
33. Find the correct statement regarding cell division
1) Karyokinesis follows cytokinesis 2) Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis
3) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur at a time 4) Interphase and cytokinesis occur at a time
34. If the total number of separate mitotic divisions after sporogenesis for the formation of certain number of zygotes in an angiosperm is 900. The number of minimum meiotic divisions in that have to occur in its sporogenesis is
1) 1800 2) 450 3) 125 4) 100
35. Type of cell division Stage of the division Cytological change in the stage
i) Mitosis Metaphase Equatorial plate
ii) Meiosis Anaphase I Equatorial plate
iii) Somatic division Diakinesis Terminalisation
iv) Reduction division Anaphase I Disjunction
Identify the two correct items
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and iv
36. During meiosis, daughter chromosomes are formed in
1) Metaphase I 2) Anaphase I 3) Metaphase II 4) Anaphase II
37. A bivalent of pachytene consists of
1) Two chromatids and one centromere 2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
3) Four chromatids, four centromeres 4) Four chromatids, two centromeres
38. Study the following
Stage of Meiosis
Event I
Event II
i) Pachytene
Close contact of maternal and paternal chromosomes
Chiasmata movement
ii) Diplotene
Chromosomal condensation
Chromosomal repulsion
iii) Leptotene
Chiasmata formation
Condensation of chromosomes
iv) Zygotene
Synapsis
Initiation of Spindle organisation
Identify the two correct items
1) i and iii 2) iii and iv 3) ii and iv 4) i and ii
39. Assertion : Meiosis is absent in bacteria.
Reason : Cells of bacteria are haploid.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
40. Arrange the following events of Mitosis in a sequence
i) Condensed chromosomes are at the equatorial region
ii) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
iii) Random arrangement of condensing chromosomes in the cytoplasm
iv) Decondensation of chromosomes
1) iii, i, ii, iv 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) ii, iii, i, iv 4) iii, ii, i, iv
1) Ribosome 2) SER 3) Chloroplast 4) RER
2. In a given nucleotide the PO4 is attached to
1) 1st carbon of pentose sugar 2) 5th carbon of pentose sugar
3) 3rd carbon of pentose sugar 4) 5th carbon of nitrogen base
3.[A] : Nitrogen bases are heterocyclic compounds.
[R] : Their ring/s are formed by nitrogen and oxygen.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
4. The monocyclic nitrogen bases are
i) Adenine ii) Cytosine iii) Guanine iv) Uracil v) Thymine
1) i, ii, iii 2) i and iii 3) ii, iv, v 4) i, iv, v
5. Genetic nature of DNA was discovered by
1) Avery et.al by transduction experiments 2) Hershy and chase by transformation experiments
3) Avery et.al by transformation experiments 4) Hershy and chase by transduction experiments
6. Choose the correct statement with respect to B-DNA structure
i) A minor groove of DNA is present opposite to major groove
ii) A minor groove is flanked by 2 major grooves
iii) Both major and minor grooves are alternately arranged
iv) In DNA helix nitrogen bases form the back bone of DNA strands
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) i, ii, iii
7. Normally DNA is completely denatured at
1) 50°C 2) 60°C 3) 100°C 4) 70°C
8. Arrange the role of following enzyme in a sequence during DNA replication
i) DNA polymerase ii) Helicase iii) DNA ligase iv) Topoisomerase
1) i, ii, iii, iv 2) iii, ii, iv, i 3) ii, iii, iv, i 4) ii, iv, i, iii
9. The following nucleic acid has a direct catalytic role for the formation of peptide bonds between the amino acids during protein synthesis
1) DNA 2) mRNA 3) tRNA 4) rRNA
10.Hydrogen bond formation within the molecule is not seen in
1) DNA 2) mRNA 3) tRNA 4) rRNA
11. Match the following
A. 2c is equivalent to n I) G2 nucleus A B C D
B. 2c is equivalent to 2n II) Daughter nucleus of M II 1) IV III II I
C. 4c is equivalent to 2n III) Daughter nucleus of M I 2) III IV I V
D. 1c is equivalent to n IV) G1 nucleus 3) III IV I II
V) Anaphase II meiocyte 4) III V I II
12. Spindle fibres are chemically made of
1) Actins 2) Myosin 3) Desmin 4) Tubulin
13. Phragmoplast is formed by
1) Chromosomes 2) Golgivesicles 3) Cell membrane 4) Spindle fragments
14. This phenomenon of meiosis takes place in zipper like fashion
1) Terminalisation 2) Crossing over 3) Disjunction 4) Synapsis
15. X-shaped structures between homologous chromosomes are formed during the following stage of meiosis
1) Diplotene 2) Diakinesis 3) Zygotene 4) Pachytene
16. Non-sister chromatids of bivalents have contact with each other only at telomeric regions during
1) Pachytene 2) Diakinesis 3) Metaphase I 4) Diplotene
17. Study the following and identify the correct item group
i) Metaphase-I
Congression
Each chromosome is attached to one chromosomal fibre
ii) Anaphase – I
Disjunction
Division of chromosomes
iii) Diakinesis
Movement of chiasmata
Movement of bivalents
iv) Anaphase - II
Division of chromosomes
Reduction in chromosome number
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iv 4) i and iii
18. Identify the wrong statement
1) Number of chromosomes of meiosis-I daughter nucleus is equivalent to number of chromosomes of meiosis-II daughter nucleus
2) Amount of DNA in all daughter nucleic of meiosis-II is same
3) Meiosis-II daughter nucleus has same amount of DNA as that of Meiosis-I daughter nucleus
4) Number of spindles formed in meiosis-II is the double the number of spindles of Meiosis-I
19. Genetic engineering is mainly based on the principle of
1) Synapsis 2) Disjunction 3) Crossing over 4) Terminalization
20. Daughter cells/nuclei formed from these meiocytes can show mitotic divisions
i) Zygote ii) Spore mother cells iii) Gamete mother cells
1) i, ii, iii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and ii
21. This nitrogen base is almost always associated with the sugar having chemical formula as C5H10O5
1) Adenine 2) Uracil 3) Guanine 4) Cytosine
22. Match the following and identify the correct match
A. DNA I) Pseudohelices A B C D
B. m RNA II) Twisted ladder 1) III II IV I
C. t RNA III) Straight, unfolded, double stranded 2) II IV V I
D. r RNA IV) Straight, unfolded, single stranded 3) IV II III I
V) Clover leaf 4) V IV II I
24. In a double helical DNA, which among the base ratios are always equal to one
i) ii) iii)
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) only i 4) i and iii
25. Match the following
No. of C and N atoms Nitrogen base A B C D
A. 3 nitrogen atoms, 4 carbon atoms I) Thymine 1) II IV III I
B. 2 nitrogen atoms, 4 carbon atoms II) Guanine 2) IV V II I
C. 5 nitrogen atoms, 5 carbon atoms III) Adenine 3) V IV II I
D. 2 nitrogen atoms, 5 carbon atoms IV) Cytosine 4) II IV I III
V) Uracil
26. If a DNA molecule with 7002 hydrogen bonds has 180 thymine bases, what is the GC/AT ratio in that DNA
1) 12.3 2) 22.3 3) 16.3 4) 42.3
28. The sugar of DNA is
1) 2¢-deoxyribose 2) 3¢ - deoxyribose 3) 1¢ - deoxyribose 4) 4¢-deoxyribose
29. This feature is not shown by the DNA of f ´ 174 bacteriophage
1) Presence of deoxyribose 2) Presence of thymine 3) Presence of guanine 4) Chargaff’s rule
30. The smallest nucleic acid is
1) mRNA 2) tRNA 3) rRNA 4) Z-RNA
31. If the angle between 1st and last nucleotide of a DNA strand of B-DNA with 3 thymine basis is 288°, the total number of hydrogen bonds present in that DNA molecule is
1) 24 2) 17 3) 21 4) 20
32. Match the following A B C D
A. W. Flemming I) Cell lineage theory 1) I II IV III
B. Farmer and Moore II) Mitosis in animal cells 2) II III IV I
C. Weismann III) Meiosis 3) II III I IV
D. R. Virchow IV) Reduction of chromosome number 4) III IV II I
33. Find the correct statement regarding cell division
1) Karyokinesis follows cytokinesis 2) Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis
3) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur at a time 4) Interphase and cytokinesis occur at a time
34. If the total number of separate mitotic divisions after sporogenesis for the formation of certain number of zygotes in an angiosperm is 900. The number of minimum meiotic divisions in that have to occur in its sporogenesis is
1) 1800 2) 450 3) 125 4) 100
35. Type of cell division Stage of the division Cytological change in the stage
i) Mitosis Metaphase Equatorial plate
ii) Meiosis Anaphase I Equatorial plate
iii) Somatic division Diakinesis Terminalisation
iv) Reduction division Anaphase I Disjunction
Identify the two correct items
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and iv
36. During meiosis, daughter chromosomes are formed in
1) Metaphase I 2) Anaphase I 3) Metaphase II 4) Anaphase II
37. A bivalent of pachytene consists of
1) Two chromatids and one centromere 2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
3) Four chromatids, four centromeres 4) Four chromatids, two centromeres
38. Study the following
Stage of Meiosis
Event I
Event II
i) Pachytene
Close contact of maternal and paternal chromosomes
Chiasmata movement
ii) Diplotene
Chromosomal condensation
Chromosomal repulsion
iii) Leptotene
Chiasmata formation
Condensation of chromosomes
iv) Zygotene
Synapsis
Initiation of Spindle organisation
Identify the two correct items
1) i and iii 2) iii and iv 3) ii and iv 4) i and ii
39. Assertion : Meiosis is absent in bacteria.
Reason : Cells of bacteria are haploid.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
40. Arrange the following events of Mitosis in a sequence
i) Condensed chromosomes are at the equatorial region
ii) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
iii) Random arrangement of condensing chromosomes in the cytoplasm
iv) Decondensation of chromosomes
1) iii, i, ii, iv 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) ii, iii, i, iv 4) iii, ii, i, iv
Friday, December 12, 2008
Cell biology - Cell organelles
Cell and its Organelles
:
1. Microtubules and microfilaments of a cell can be clearly observed by using
1) Phase contrast microscope 2) Fluorescent microscope
3) Normal compound microscope 4) Simple microscope
2. Random movement of colloidal particles of protoplasm was discovered by a person who also discovered
1) Cell 2) Protoplasm 3) Nucleus 4) Plastid
3. The first discovered plant cell is a cell of
1) Dracaena 2) Yucca 3) Quercus 4) Gossypium
4. Macromolecules of a cell can be separated by using the techniques
i) Autoradiography ii) Electrophoresis iii) Ultracentrifugation
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) only ii
5. Magnetic condensers are used in
1) Light microscope 2) Phase contrast microscope
3) Fluorescent microscope 4) Electron microscope
6. Isolated parenchyma cells of a plant do not have
1) Secondary cell wall 2) Middle lamellum 3) Nucleus 4) Cell membrane
7. [A] : Secondary cell walls are inelastic.
[R] : They have cellulose.
1) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
8. Torus is thickened portion of
1) Nuclear envelope 2) Middle lamellum of pit region
3) Primary cell wall present towards intercellular space 4) Secondary cell wall
9. The most acceptable theory to understand the nature of protoplasm of cell is
1) Colloidal theory 2) Fibrillar theory 3) Sol-gel theory 4) Alveolar theory
10. Trilamellar nature of lipochondrial membrane was shown by
1) Danielli 2) Singer 3) Robertson 4) Pfeffer
11. Unit membrane model, trilamellar model and fluid-mosaic model of plasma membrane share this feature in common
1) Continuous arrangement of protein molecules 2) Arrangement of lipid as monolayer
3) Arrangement of proteins in two layers 4) Arrangement of lipid molecules in two tiers or layers
12. Study the following and identify the correct match
A. Cell organelle not seen in meristems I) Peptidyl transferase A B C D
B. Cell organelle abundantly present in meristems II) Chloroplast 1) II IV I V
C. Palade granules III) Lysosome 2) II IV I III
D. Cell organelle with catalase IV) Mitochondrion 3) III IV I V
V) Peroxisome 4) IV II I V
13. Lysosomes arise from
i) Cisternae of E.R. ii) Tubules of E.R. iii) Cisternae of golgi iv) Tubules of golgi
1) i and iii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) i, ii, iii
14. Plasmosomes are involved in the formation of
1) Peroxisomes 2) Glyoxysomes 3) Vacuoles 4) Ribosomes
15. Anthocyanin is present in
1) Tonoplasm 2) Nucleoplasm 3) Matrix 4) Cytoplasm
16. Chromosomes were first observed as rod like structures in
1) Microspore mother cells 2) Meristematic cells
3) Megaspore mother cell 4) Fusiform initials
17. Total number of chromonemata seen in metaphasic meristematic cell of oryza is
1) 24 2) 48 3) 12 4) 96
18. Feulgen is used to stain
1) Cytoplasm 2) Nucleus 3) Nucleolus 4) Chromosomes
19. Amino acid lysine is abundantly present in the following histones
1) H1 2) H2 3) H3 4) H4
20. Nucleosome model to understand the structure of chromatin was given by
1) Oudet 2) Oudet, Korenberg 3) Oudet and Thomas 4) Korenberg, Thomas
21. Study and match the following two tables and identify the correct match.
A. Oxysomes I) Golgi complex A B C D
B. Circular DNA II) Endoplasmic reticulum 1) III IV II I
C. Cisternae III) Chloroplast 2) II IV III I
D. Peroxisomes IV) Mitochandrion 3) IV III I II
V) Lysosome 4) IV III II I
22. Identify the correct statements.
i) Lipids form the matrix of cell membrane (Singer and Nicholson)
ii) Proteins form the matrix of cell membrane (Davson)
iii) Pectin forms the matrix of primary cell wall.
1) i and ii 2) i, ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) ii and iii
23.
Scientist
Cell organelle discovered
Function of organelle
i) Benda
Power house of the cell
Anaerobic respiration
ii) Rhodin
Peroxisome
Phospholipid synthesis
iii) Palade
Ergosome
Lipid synthesis
iv) Duve
Suicidal bag of the cell
Digestion of inactive cells
Identify the two correct items
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) ii and iv
24.
A
B
C
i) Vaucheria
Autotrophic thallophyte
Multinucleate
ii) Mucor
Heterotrophic prokaryote
Coenocytic
iii) Tapetal cells
Nutritive cells of microsporangium
Coenocytic
iv) Basidimycetes
A group of fungi
Dikaryotic condition
Identify the two correct items
1) i and iii 2) ii and iv 3) iii and iv 4) i and iv
25. Match the following and identify the correct match
A. Phycoerythrin I) Tomato A B C D
B. Fucoxanthin II) Blue-green alga 1) I IV III V
C. Lycopene III) Red algae 2) III IV I II
D. Phycocyanin IV) Brown algae 3) III IV I V
V) Zea mays 4) IV III I II
26. This cell organelle is involved in intracellular transport of materials.
1) Golgi complex 2) E.R 3) Lysosomes 4) Glyoxysomes
27. Match the following and identify the correct match
A. Cell organelle that can swallow other cell organelle I) Ribosome
B. Cell organelle that posses other cell organelle II) Mitochondrion
C. Cell organelle that shows cohesion and adhesion III) E.R
D. Cell organelle that behaves as cell IV) Golgi complex
V) Lysosome
1) A – V, B – III, C – IV, D – II 2) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II
3) A – V, B – III, C – I, D – II 4) A – V, B – III, C – II, D – I
28. Pigmented unit membranes associated with energy transduction is
1) Thylakoid membrane 2) Inner membrane of mitochondrion
3) Tonoplast 4) Inner membrane of chloroplast
29. Arrange the following cell organelles with gradual increase in their size
i) Peroxisome ii) Lysosome iii) Glyoxysome iv) Ribosome
1) i, ii, iii, iv 2) ii, iii, iv, i 3) iv, i, iii, ii 4) iv, iii, i, ii
30. Autotroph with multinucleate cells is
1) Mucor 2) Rhizopus 3) Vaucheria 4) Agaricus
31. The trimorphic cell organelle is
1) Ribosome 2) Golgi 3) E.R. 4) Plastid
32. The cell organelle commonly seen in mesophyll cells but not in Achlorophyllous cells is
1) Plastid 2) Mitochondrion 3) Lysosome 4) Peroxisome
33. This chromosome has only one arm during Anaphase
1) Metacentric 2) Acrocentric 3) Sub-metacentric 4) Telocentric
34. Arrange the following chromosomes with respect to gradual decrease in distance between the telomere and primary constriction (considering the nearest telomere into account and chromosomes with equal length).
i) Acrocentric chromosome ii) Metacentric chromosome
iii) Submetacentric chromosome iv) Telocentric chromosome
1) ii, iv, i and iii 2) iv, i, iii and ii 3) ii, i, iii and iv 4) ii, iii , i and iv
35. The number of total DNA strands seen in the chromosomes of metaphasic stage of Allium cepa meristematic cell is
1) 16 2) 32 3) 64 4) 8
36. [A] : To know the structure of chromosome in the laboratory plant material is preferred over animal material.
[R] : Plant chromosomes are larger than animal chromosomes.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
37. Arrange the following with gradual increase in the number of chromosome in each cell
i) Endosperm of Raphanus ii) Synergid of Saccharum
iii) Cotyledon of Nicotiana iv) Microspore of Maize
1) iv, i, ii, iii 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) ii, i, iii, iv 4) iv, i, iii, ii
38. Study the following
Chromosome number
Structure / Cell – I
Structure / Cell – II
i) 8
Colchicines treated meristematic cell of Haplopappus
Generative cell of Allium
ii) 24
Secondary nucleus of Raphanus
Mesophyll cell of Oryza
iii) 14
Stem cell of Triticum monococcum
Zygote of Pisum
iv) 40
Endosperm nucleus of Maize
Male gamete of Saccharum
Identify the two correct items
1) i and iv 2) iii and iv 3) i and iii 4) i and ii
39. 4n chromosome number of Raphanus is equal to 3n chromosome number of plant A. The 4n chromosome number of plant A is equal to the 2n chromosome number of plant B. n-chromosome number of plant B is equal to 3n chromosome number of plant C. The n chromosome number of plant C is equivalent to 4n chromosome number of plant D. The sum of diploid chromosome number of plants A, B, C and D is
1) 94 2) 80 3) 92 4) 102
40. Longest normal chromosomes are seen in a plant belongs to the family
1) Solanaceae 2) Asteraceae 3) Fabaceae 4) Liliaceae
1. Microtubules and microfilaments of a cell can be clearly observed by using
1) Phase contrast microscope 2) Fluorescent microscope
3) Normal compound microscope 4) Simple microscope
2. Random movement of colloidal particles of protoplasm was discovered by a person who also discovered
1) Cell 2) Protoplasm 3) Nucleus 4) Plastid
3. The first discovered plant cell is a cell of
1) Dracaena 2) Yucca 3) Quercus 4) Gossypium
4. Macromolecules of a cell can be separated by using the techniques
i) Autoradiography ii) Electrophoresis iii) Ultracentrifugation
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) only ii
5. Magnetic condensers are used in
1) Light microscope 2) Phase contrast microscope
3) Fluorescent microscope 4) Electron microscope
6. Isolated parenchyma cells of a plant do not have
1) Secondary cell wall 2) Middle lamellum 3) Nucleus 4) Cell membrane
7. [A] : Secondary cell walls are inelastic.
[R] : They have cellulose.
1) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
8. Torus is thickened portion of
1) Nuclear envelope 2) Middle lamellum of pit region
3) Primary cell wall present towards intercellular space 4) Secondary cell wall
9. The most acceptable theory to understand the nature of protoplasm of cell is
1) Colloidal theory 2) Fibrillar theory 3) Sol-gel theory 4) Alveolar theory
10. Trilamellar nature of lipochondrial membrane was shown by
1) Danielli 2) Singer 3) Robertson 4) Pfeffer
11. Unit membrane model, trilamellar model and fluid-mosaic model of plasma membrane share this feature in common
1) Continuous arrangement of protein molecules 2) Arrangement of lipid as monolayer
3) Arrangement of proteins in two layers 4) Arrangement of lipid molecules in two tiers or layers
12. Study the following and identify the correct match
A. Cell organelle not seen in meristems I) Peptidyl transferase A B C D
B. Cell organelle abundantly present in meristems II) Chloroplast 1) II IV I V
C. Palade granules III) Lysosome 2) II IV I III
D. Cell organelle with catalase IV) Mitochondrion 3) III IV I V
V) Peroxisome 4) IV II I V
13. Lysosomes arise from
i) Cisternae of E.R. ii) Tubules of E.R. iii) Cisternae of golgi iv) Tubules of golgi
1) i and iii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) i, ii, iii
14. Plasmosomes are involved in the formation of
1) Peroxisomes 2) Glyoxysomes 3) Vacuoles 4) Ribosomes
15. Anthocyanin is present in
1) Tonoplasm 2) Nucleoplasm 3) Matrix 4) Cytoplasm
16. Chromosomes were first observed as rod like structures in
1) Microspore mother cells 2) Meristematic cells
3) Megaspore mother cell 4) Fusiform initials
17. Total number of chromonemata seen in metaphasic meristematic cell of oryza is
1) 24 2) 48 3) 12 4) 96
18. Feulgen is used to stain
1) Cytoplasm 2) Nucleus 3) Nucleolus 4) Chromosomes
19. Amino acid lysine is abundantly present in the following histones
1) H1 2) H2 3) H3 4) H4
20. Nucleosome model to understand the structure of chromatin was given by
1) Oudet 2) Oudet, Korenberg 3) Oudet and Thomas 4) Korenberg, Thomas
21. Study and match the following two tables and identify the correct match.
A. Oxysomes I) Golgi complex A B C D
B. Circular DNA II) Endoplasmic reticulum 1) III IV II I
C. Cisternae III) Chloroplast 2) II IV III I
D. Peroxisomes IV) Mitochandrion 3) IV III I II
V) Lysosome 4) IV III II I
22. Identify the correct statements.
i) Lipids form the matrix of cell membrane (Singer and Nicholson)
ii) Proteins form the matrix of cell membrane (Davson)
iii) Pectin forms the matrix of primary cell wall.
1) i and ii 2) i, ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) ii and iii
23.
Scientist
Cell organelle discovered
Function of organelle
i) Benda
Power house of the cell
Anaerobic respiration
ii) Rhodin
Peroxisome
Phospholipid synthesis
iii) Palade
Ergosome
Lipid synthesis
iv) Duve
Suicidal bag of the cell
Digestion of inactive cells
Identify the two correct items
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) ii and iv
24.
A
B
C
i) Vaucheria
Autotrophic thallophyte
Multinucleate
ii) Mucor
Heterotrophic prokaryote
Coenocytic
iii) Tapetal cells
Nutritive cells of microsporangium
Coenocytic
iv) Basidimycetes
A group of fungi
Dikaryotic condition
Identify the two correct items
1) i and iii 2) ii and iv 3) iii and iv 4) i and iv
25. Match the following and identify the correct match
A. Phycoerythrin I) Tomato A B C D
B. Fucoxanthin II) Blue-green alga 1) I IV III V
C. Lycopene III) Red algae 2) III IV I II
D. Phycocyanin IV) Brown algae 3) III IV I V
V) Zea mays 4) IV III I II
26. This cell organelle is involved in intracellular transport of materials.
1) Golgi complex 2) E.R 3) Lysosomes 4) Glyoxysomes
27. Match the following and identify the correct match
A. Cell organelle that can swallow other cell organelle I) Ribosome
B. Cell organelle that posses other cell organelle II) Mitochondrion
C. Cell organelle that shows cohesion and adhesion III) E.R
D. Cell organelle that behaves as cell IV) Golgi complex
V) Lysosome
1) A – V, B – III, C – IV, D – II 2) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II
3) A – V, B – III, C – I, D – II 4) A – V, B – III, C – II, D – I
28. Pigmented unit membranes associated with energy transduction is
1) Thylakoid membrane 2) Inner membrane of mitochondrion
3) Tonoplast 4) Inner membrane of chloroplast
29. Arrange the following cell organelles with gradual increase in their size
i) Peroxisome ii) Lysosome iii) Glyoxysome iv) Ribosome
1) i, ii, iii, iv 2) ii, iii, iv, i 3) iv, i, iii, ii 4) iv, iii, i, ii
30. Autotroph with multinucleate cells is
1) Mucor 2) Rhizopus 3) Vaucheria 4) Agaricus
31. The trimorphic cell organelle is
1) Ribosome 2) Golgi 3) E.R. 4) Plastid
32. The cell organelle commonly seen in mesophyll cells but not in Achlorophyllous cells is
1) Plastid 2) Mitochondrion 3) Lysosome 4) Peroxisome
33. This chromosome has only one arm during Anaphase
1) Metacentric 2) Acrocentric 3) Sub-metacentric 4) Telocentric
34. Arrange the following chromosomes with respect to gradual decrease in distance between the telomere and primary constriction (considering the nearest telomere into account and chromosomes with equal length).
i) Acrocentric chromosome ii) Metacentric chromosome
iii) Submetacentric chromosome iv) Telocentric chromosome
1) ii, iv, i and iii 2) iv, i, iii and ii 3) ii, i, iii and iv 4) ii, iii , i and iv
35. The number of total DNA strands seen in the chromosomes of metaphasic stage of Allium cepa meristematic cell is
1) 16 2) 32 3) 64 4) 8
36. [A] : To know the structure of chromosome in the laboratory plant material is preferred over animal material.
[R] : Plant chromosomes are larger than animal chromosomes.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
37. Arrange the following with gradual increase in the number of chromosome in each cell
i) Endosperm of Raphanus ii) Synergid of Saccharum
iii) Cotyledon of Nicotiana iv) Microspore of Maize
1) iv, i, ii, iii 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) ii, i, iii, iv 4) iv, i, iii, ii
38. Study the following
Chromosome number
Structure / Cell – I
Structure / Cell – II
i) 8
Colchicines treated meristematic cell of Haplopappus
Generative cell of Allium
ii) 24
Secondary nucleus of Raphanus
Mesophyll cell of Oryza
iii) 14
Stem cell of Triticum monococcum
Zygote of Pisum
iv) 40
Endosperm nucleus of Maize
Male gamete of Saccharum
Identify the two correct items
1) i and iv 2) iii and iv 3) i and iii 4) i and ii
39. 4n chromosome number of Raphanus is equal to 3n chromosome number of plant A. The 4n chromosome number of plant A is equal to the 2n chromosome number of plant B. n-chromosome number of plant B is equal to 3n chromosome number of plant C. The n chromosome number of plant C is equivalent to 4n chromosome number of plant D. The sum of diploid chromosome number of plants A, B, C and D is
1) 94 2) 80 3) 92 4) 102
40. Longest normal chromosomes are seen in a plant belongs to the family
1) Solanaceae 2) Asteraceae 3) Fabaceae 4) Liliaceae
Thursday, December 11, 2008
Request for viewing and sending the comments on the model papers
I, Dr.K.Vani Manohar, hereafter will regularly post the model papers for various medical entrance examinations conducted in India for the benefit of the right aspirants. I request the students and teachers of bilological sciences to send their valuable comments for the betterment of the blog.
Botanically
K.Vani Manohar
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