Cell Biology - Nucleic Acids and Cell Division

1. Nucleic acids are absent in
1) Ribosome 2) SER 3) Chloroplast 4) RER
2. In a given nucleotide the PO4 is attached to
1) 1st carbon of pentose sugar 2) 5th carbon of pentose sugar
3) 3rd carbon of pentose sugar 4) 5th carbon of nitrogen base
3.[A] : Nitrogen bases are heterocyclic compounds.
[R] : Their ring/s are formed by nitrogen and oxygen.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
4. The monocyclic nitrogen bases are
i) Adenine ii) Cytosine iii) Guanine iv) Uracil v) Thymine
1) i, ii, iii 2) i and iii 3) ii, iv, v 4) i, iv, v
5. Genetic nature of DNA was discovered by
1) Avery et.al by transduction experiments 2) Hershy and chase by transformation experiments
3) Avery et.al by transformation experiments 4) Hershy and chase by transduction experiments
6. Choose the correct statement with respect to B-DNA structure
i) A minor groove of DNA is present opposite to major groove
ii) A minor groove is flanked by 2 major grooves
iii) Both major and minor grooves are alternately arranged
iv) In DNA helix nitrogen bases form the back bone of DNA strands
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) iii and iv 4) i, ii, iii
7. Normally DNA is completely denatured at
1) 50°C 2) 60°C 3) 100°C 4) 70°C
8. Arrange the role of following enzyme in a sequence during DNA replication
i) DNA polymerase ii) Helicase iii) DNA ligase iv) Topoisomerase
1) i, ii, iii, iv 2) iii, ii, iv, i 3) ii, iii, iv, i 4) ii, iv, i, iii
9. The following nucleic acid has a direct catalytic role for the formation of peptide bonds between the amino acids during protein synthesis
1) DNA 2) mRNA 3) tRNA 4) rRNA
10.Hydrogen bond formation within the molecule is not seen in
1) DNA 2) mRNA 3) tRNA 4) rRNA
11. Match the following
A. 2c is equivalent to n I) G2 nucleus A B C D
B. 2c is equivalent to 2n II) Daughter nucleus of M II 1) IV III II I
C. 4c is equivalent to 2n III) Daughter nucleus of M I 2) III IV I V
D. 1c is equivalent to n IV) G1 nucleus 3) III IV I II
V) Anaphase II meiocyte 4) III V I II
12. Spindle fibres are chemically made of
1) Actins 2) Myosin 3) Desmin 4) Tubulin
13. Phragmoplast is formed by
1) Chromosomes 2) Golgivesicles 3) Cell membrane 4) Spindle fragments
14. This phenomenon of meiosis takes place in zipper like fashion
1) Terminalisation 2) Crossing over 3) Disjunction 4) Synapsis
15. X-shaped structures between homologous chromosomes are formed during the following stage of meiosis
1) Diplotene 2) Diakinesis 3) Zygotene 4) Pachytene
16. Non-sister chromatids of bivalents have contact with each other only at telomeric regions during
1) Pachytene 2) Diakinesis 3) Metaphase I 4) Diplotene
17. Study the following and identify the correct item group

i) Metaphase-I
Congression
Each chromosome is attached to one chromosomal fibre

ii) Anaphase – I
Disjunction
Division of chromosomes

iii) Diakinesis
Movement of chiasmata
Movement of bivalents

iv) Anaphase - II
Division of chromosomes
Reduction in chromosome number
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iv 4) i and iii
18. Identify the wrong statement
1) Number of chromosomes of meiosis-I daughter nucleus is equivalent to number of chromosomes of meiosis-II daughter nucleus
2) Amount of DNA in all daughter nucleic of meiosis-II is same
3) Meiosis-II daughter nucleus has same amount of DNA as that of Meiosis-I daughter nucleus
4) Number of spindles formed in meiosis-II is the double the number of spindles of Meiosis-I
19. Genetic engineering is mainly based on the principle of
1) Synapsis 2) Disjunction 3) Crossing over 4) Terminalization
20. Daughter cells/nuclei formed from these meiocytes can show mitotic divisions
i) Zygote ii) Spore mother cells iii) Gamete mother cells
1) i, ii, iii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and ii
21. This nitrogen base is almost always associated with the sugar having chemical formula as C5H10O5
1) Adenine 2) Uracil 3) Guanine 4) Cytosine
22. Match the following and identify the correct match
A. DNA I) Pseudohelices A B C D
B. m RNA II) Twisted ladder 1) III II IV I
C. t RNA III) Straight, unfolded, double stranded 2) II IV V I
D. r RNA IV) Straight, unfolded, single stranded 3) IV II III I
V) Clover leaf 4) V IV II I

24. In a double helical DNA, which among the base ratios are always equal to one
i) ii) iii)
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) only i 4) i and iii
25. Match the following
No. of C and N atoms Nitrogen base A B C D
A. 3 nitrogen atoms, 4 carbon atoms I) Thymine 1) II IV III I
B. 2 nitrogen atoms, 4 carbon atoms II) Guanine 2) IV V II I
C. 5 nitrogen atoms, 5 carbon atoms III) Adenine 3) V IV II I
D. 2 nitrogen atoms, 5 carbon atoms IV) Cytosine 4) II IV I III
V) Uracil
26. If a DNA molecule with 7002 hydrogen bonds has 180 thymine bases, what is the GC/AT ratio in that DNA
1) 12.3 2) 22.3 3) 16.3 4) 42.3
28. The sugar of DNA is
1) 2¢-deoxyribose 2) 3¢ - deoxyribose 3) 1¢ - deoxyribose 4) 4¢-deoxyribose
29. This feature is not shown by the DNA of f ´ 174 bacteriophage
1) Presence of deoxyribose 2) Presence of thymine 3) Presence of guanine 4) Chargaff’s rule
30. The smallest nucleic acid is
1) mRNA 2) tRNA 3) rRNA 4) Z-RNA
31. If the angle between 1st and last nucleotide of a DNA strand of B-DNA with 3 thymine basis is 288°, the total number of hydrogen bonds present in that DNA molecule is
1) 24 2) 17 3) 21 4) 20
32. Match the following A B C D
A. W. Flemming I) Cell lineage theory 1) I II IV III
B. Farmer and Moore II) Mitosis in animal cells 2) II III IV I
C. Weismann III) Meiosis 3) II III I IV
D. R. Virchow IV) Reduction of chromosome number 4) III IV II I
33. Find the correct statement regarding cell division
1) Karyokinesis follows cytokinesis 2) Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis
3) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur at a time 4) Interphase and cytokinesis occur at a time
34. If the total number of separate mitotic divisions after sporogenesis for the formation of certain number of zygotes in an angiosperm is 900. The number of minimum meiotic divisions in that have to occur in its sporogenesis is
1) 1800 2) 450 3) 125 4) 100
35. Type of cell division Stage of the division Cytological change in the stage
i) Mitosis Metaphase Equatorial plate
ii) Meiosis Anaphase I Equatorial plate
iii) Somatic division Diakinesis Terminalisation
iv) Reduction division Anaphase I Disjunction
Identify the two correct items
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and iv
36. During meiosis, daughter chromosomes are formed in
1) Metaphase I 2) Anaphase I 3) Metaphase II 4) Anaphase II
37. A bivalent of pachytene consists of
1) Two chromatids and one centromere 2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
3) Four chromatids, four centromeres 4) Four chromatids, two centromeres
38. Study the following

Stage of Meiosis
Event I
Event II

i) Pachytene
Close contact of maternal and paternal chromosomes
Chiasmata movement

ii) Diplotene
Chromosomal condensation
Chromosomal repulsion

iii) Leptotene
Chiasmata formation
Condensation of chromosomes

iv) Zygotene
Synapsis
Initiation of Spindle organisation
Identify the two correct items
1) i and iii 2) iii and iv 3) ii and iv 4) i and ii
39. Assertion : Meiosis is absent in bacteria.
Reason : Cells of bacteria are haploid.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
40. Arrange the following events of Mitosis in a sequence
i) Condensed chromosomes are at the equatorial region
ii) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
iii) Random arrangement of condensing chromosomes in the cytoplasm
iv) Decondensation of chromosomes
1) iii, i, ii, iv 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) ii, iii, i, iv 4) iii, ii, i, iv